As I continue to read scripture and compare translations a thought suddenly came to mind. Might Christians (in our earnestness to proclaim truth) actually be hindering those who not only do not understand the plan of salvation but also have problems wading through the old English language used in the King James bible? Let me first of all say that this in no way nullifies the use of the King James translation but it does present a conundrum, of sorts. It is interesting to note, in my humble opinion, that we may be doing something similar (in a very loose comparison) which others such as the Mennonites, the Amish and Hutterites are doing in grasping onto a period of time-past in order to resolve a way life in the present. Indeed the King James version is quite accurate however it isn’t without error. Also (by relying on the age of its inception) does it necessarily mean that it is any more “Holy” than many newer translations? Granted some new translations have glaring error, while others have few. The King James Version was produced in the Elizabethan period of early modern English, and so it uses forms of the verbs and pronouns that were characteristic of that period. Therefore for a person who is living in our day to be able to accurately understand God’s word, have we put another bit of an obstacle in their path to understanding by heavily relying upon language which has noticeably changed since its inception? My question is this: is this a necessary obstacle or is this an obstacle at all? I’d be interested in feed back about this! File this under “Food for thought”!
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Shalom brother! In answer to your question, No, in fact many years ago, before all of these “new translations”, more people were saved than today. Conviction is brought on a person by Jesus,working through the Holy Ghost. Remember Christ said that no man cometh to the Father but through Him.
Greetings, Bryan! I thought you’d disappeared! Glad to be hearing from you, again. I appreciate your input and do agree with several points. However my main concern isn’t within the actual message of Jesus but of the use of outdated wording, itself. Yes, the KJV has been used through the years to teach countless numbers of Christians however in a day where our English language is changing radically, is it beginning to get to the point where it (KJV) is having to be clarified, itself, before any teaching can be done? For instance, would any random person who decided to pick up a KJV and just simply begin reading be able to understand what the words phylacteries, concupiscence, habergeon, rereward and on and on, well, you get the gist. What do those words actually mean? A person would have to study old English words in order to translate them into current English even before beginning a serious study of the testaments. So, this was my concern.
My friend I am still here and serving my Lord! If it is ok with you I will call you through facebook.
As for the main question of your blog I will follow the scriptures here and give this as my humble answer, ” Of these things put them in remembrance, charging them before the Lord that they strive not about words to no profit, but to the subverting ( to overthrow something established or existing, to cause the downfall, ruin, or destruction of; corrupt) of the hearers.” (2 Timothy 2:14) Since you and I are mutual partakers, of the offering, of salvation by the blood of Christ, let us ” flee also youthful lusts: but follow after righteousness, faith, charity, peace, with them that call on the Lord out of a pure heart. But foolish and unlearned questions avoid, knowing that they do gender strifes and the servant of the Lord must not strive; but be gentle unto all men, apt to teach, patient, in meekness instructing those that oppose themselves; if God peradventure will give them repentance to the acknowledging of the truth;” (2 Timothy 2:22-25) Amen?