As I continue to read scripture and compare translations a thought suddenly came to mind. Might Christians (in our earnestness to proclaim truth) actually be hindering those who not only do not understand the plan of salvation but also have problems wading through the old English language used in the King James bible? Let me first of all say that this in no way nullifies the use of the King James translation but it does present a conundrum, of sorts. It is interesting to note, in my humble opinion, that we may be doing something similar (in a very loose comparison) which others such as the Mennonites, the Amish and Hutterites are doing in grasping onto a period of time-past in order to resolve a way life in the present. Indeed the King James version is quite accurate however it isn’t without error. Also (by relying on the age of its inception) does it necessarily mean that it is any more “Holy” than many newer translations? Granted some new translations have glaring error, while others have few. The King James Version was produced in the Elizabethan period of early modern English, and so it uses forms of the verbs and pronouns that were characteristic of that period. Therefore for a person who is living in our day to be able to accurately understand God’s word, have we put another bit of an obstacle in their path to understanding by heavily relying upon language which has noticeably changed since its inception? My question is this: is this a necessary obstacle or is this an obstacle at all? I’d be interested in feed back about this! File this under “Food for thought”!